Since it was the basis of my main argument, that has been invalidated as well.
More like, "Fundamental Islam denies secularism. Not all Muslims are fundamentalists, but some are.""There's no way for a Muslim to be secular, except the ones who are." You know even the recent history of the Middle East is full of secular governments, right? Most of the governments that are experiencing uprisings right now are strongly secular governments.
If ideologies of the West in Islamic countries have the effect of diminishing religiosity, then it proves that the ideologies and the religion are incompatible."Imply".No it doesn't. What you have stated here is a non-sequitur, that doesn't prove what you say it proves at all. It may indicate that it could be true, but it doesn't prove anything.
I meant it "implies they're incompatible". Yeah..
But, I must ask: hypothetically, what do *you* propose will happen in these two scenarios: 1: The West experiences, at this current time, an 'Islamic phenomenon' or 'movement' in which large amounts of people convert to Islam, and 2: Over a decade or two, Islam in the West grows to represent a politically significant amount of people?